Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 11:30
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Trump Plans Biofuel Quota Boost, Seeks to Crimp Imports - Bloomberg
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Do you have pics of the wife making out with another guy?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
A runway under construction at Newark's beleaguered airport reopens early - NPR
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.